vasantha

• Chapter 1 Control And Coordination In Living Organisms MCQs
• Chapter 2 Continuity Of Life MCQs
• Chapter 3 Heredity and Common Genetic Diseases MCQs
• Chapter 4 Evolution And Adaptation MCQs
• Chapter 5 Environment Its Resources And Their Conservation MCQs

WBBSE Chapter 5 Nitrogen Cycle Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The bacteria that bring about ammonification is

1. Bacillus ramosus
2. B.thuringiensis
3. B. subtilis
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Bacillus ramosus

Question 2. The bacteria helping in nitrification is

1. Clostridium sp
2. Nitrosomonas sp
3. Nitrobactersp
4. Pseudomonas

Answer: 2. Nitrosomonas sp

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The absorption of nitrogen in plants occurs in the form of

1. N03
2. N₂
3. H2
4. NH4⁺

Answer: 1. N03

Question 4. The bacteria that cause denitrification is

1. Glucanobacter sp
2. Escherichia sp
3. Nitrobacter sp
4. Pseudomonas sp

Answer: 3. Nitrobacter sp

Question 5. Which of the plants does not have endophytic cyanobacteria?

1. Cycas sp
2. Azolla sp
3. Anthoceros sp
4. Gnetum sp

Answer: 3. Anthoceros sp

Question 6. Which one of the greenhouse gases causes the acidification of soil?

1. Ch4
2. CFC
3. N₂O
4. 03

Answer: 3. N₂O

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs

Question 7. Which process increases nitrogen concentration in the atmosphere?

1. Ammonification
2. Nitrification
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Denitrification

Answer: 4. Denitrification

Question 8. Which of the bacteria is a free-living nitrogen fixer?

1. Escherichia
2. Clostridium
3. Rhizobium
4. Frankia

Answer: 2. Clostridium

Question 9. Which bacteria remains associated with the root valgus?

1. Rhizobium
2. Azospirillum
3. Frankia
4. Bradyrhizobium

Answer: 2. Azospirillum

Question 10. The key enzyme for nitrogen fixation is

1. Dinitrogenase
2. Nitrogenase
3. Nitrate oxidase
4. Nitrate reductase

Answer: 2. Nitrogenase

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs With Answers

Question 11. The elements required for nitrogenase are

1. Co and mo
2. Fe and mo
3. Fe and co
4. B and mo.

Answer: 2. Fe and mo

Question 12. The chemical process involving the production of NH3 is

1. Haber-bosch process
2. Riemer’s process
3. Helmont’s process
4. Friedel-craft’s reaction

Answer: 1. Haber-bosch process

Question 13. The following cyanobacteria fix nitrogen

1. Stigonema
2. Gleocapsa
3. Anabaena
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Anabaena

Question 14. The following fern is used as a biofertilizer in paddy field

1. Salvinea
2. Azolla
3. Marsilea
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Azolla

Question 15. The number of ATP molecules required for fixing one molecule of nitrogen is

1. 6 Atp
2. 10 Atp
3. 14 Atp
4. 16 Atp

Answer: 4. 16 Atp

Question 16. The nodule appears red due to the presence of

1. Nodulin
2. Haemoglobin
3. Ferredoxin
4. Leg-haemoglobin

Answer: 4. Leg-haemoglobin

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs

Question 18. Rhizobium to legume root is

1. Polysaccharide
2. Nodulin
3. Lectin
4. Protein

Answer: 3. Lectin

Question 19. Leghaemoglobin creates

1. Anaerobic condition for optimum activity of nitrogenase
2. Aerobic condition for optimum activity of nitrogenase
3. Required oxygen concentration for optimum activity of nitrogenase
4. A suitable environment for nodule formation

Answer: 3. Required oxygen concentration for optimum activity of nitrogenase

Question 20. Arrange the following processes of the N₂ cycle in proper sequence: Denitrification, Nitrogen fixation, Ammonification, and Nitrification

1. (2) — (3)— (4) — (1)
2. (1) — (2) — (3) — (4)
3. (1) — (3) — (2) — (4)
4. (4) —(3) —(2) —(1)

Answer: 1. (2) — (3)— (4) — (1)

Question 21. One of the following is a way by which atmospheric nitrogen is converted to nitrates-

1. Reduction
2. Decay
3. Denitrification
4. Lightning

Answer: 4. Lightning

Question 22. Rhizobium bacteria and root nodules of a pea plant an examples of

1. Predation
2. Symbiosis
3. Parasitism
4. Commensalism

Answer: 2. Symbiosis

Question 23. Which of the following phases of the nitrogen cycle Pseudomonas is associated with—

1. Nitrogen fixation
2. Nitrification
3. Denitrification
4. Ammonification

Answer: 3. Denitrification

Life Science Class 10 Chapter 5 Mcqs With Answers

Question 24. Which one of the folio wing microbes takes part in nitrification—

1. Nitrosomonas
2. Azotobacter
3. Pseudomonas
4. Thiobacillus

Answer: 1. Nitrosomonas

WBBSE Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution MCQs

Question 25. In almost all metropolitan cities, the major atmospheric pollutant(s) is/are

1. Oxides of sulfur
2. CO₂ & Co
3. Suspended particulate matter (SPM)
4. Oxides of nitrogen

Answer: 3. Suspended particulate matter (SPM)

Question 26. SPM include

1. Aerosols
2. Raindrops
3. Smog
4. Minute dust particles

Answer: 4. Minute dust particles

Question 27. Which of the following is not a particulate matter?

1. Hydrocarbon dust
2. Lead dust
3. Ozone
4. Smoke

Answer: 3. Ozone

Question 28. The diameter of the rpm is

1. SPM₁₀
2. SPM_g
3. SPM_s
4. SPM₂

Answer: 4. SPM₂

Question 29. Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?

1. O3
2. Pan
3. Both
4. CO₂

Answer: 3. Both

Question 30. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

1. CO₂
2. Ch4
3. 03
4. Co

Answer: 4. Co

Life Science Class 10 Chapter 5 Mcqs With Answers

Question 31. The percentage of air pollution that comes from combustion is

1. 20-30%
2. 30-40%
3. 40-50%
4. 50 – 60%

Answer: 4. 40-50%

Question 32. Which of the following gases may be used as a coolant?

1. CCl4
2. CFC
3. 03
4. None

Answer: 2. Cfc

Question 33. Which layer is damaged due to supersonic jets?

1. O3 layer
2. CO₂ layer
3. Co layer
4. None

Answer: 1. O3 layer

Question 34. The following gas causes depletion of 02 from hemoglobin

1. CO₂
2. Co
3. Ch4
4. No

Answer: 2. Co

Question 35. Which are the primary constituents of photochemical smog?

1. Hydrocarbons and CFCS
2. CO₂ & NO₂
3. NO₂ & hydrocarbons
4. SO₂ & Co.

Answer: 3. NO₂ & hydrocarbons

Question 36. The greenhouse effect corresponds to

1. Water pollution
2. SO₂ poisoning
3. Global warming
4. Production of green manure

Answer: 3. Global warming

Question 37. Excessive nutrients in the water body are also called

1. Bio-accumulation
2. Bio-stimulation
3. Bio-magnification
4. Eutrophication

Answer: 4. Eutrophication

Life Science Class 10 Chapter 5 Mcqs With Answers

Question 38. The nitrogen-fixing bacteria only become active

1. In the presence of phosphorus
2. In the presence of a high amount of nitrogen
3. In the absence of nitrogen
4. In low concentrations of nitrogen

Answer: 3. In the absence of nitrogen

Question 39. The following element is highest in seawater

1. Cl
2. F
3. P
4. C

Answer: 3. P

Question 40. Radiation may induce

1. Leukemia
2. Blood sugar
3. Heart attack
4. Osteoporosis

Answer: 1. Leukemia

Question 41. The following metal blocks hemoglobin biosynthesis

1. Co
2. Fe
3. Cu
4. Pb

Answer: 4. Pb

Question 42. Acid rain may include

1. Nitrous acid
2. Nitric acid
3. Sulphuric acid
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 44. Exposure to the following radioactive elements causes bone cancer & leukemia

1. Radium 226
2. Thorium232
3. Strontium90
4. Uranium236

Answer: 3. Strontium90

Life Science Class 10 Chapter 5 Mcqs With Answers

Question 45. The gradual increase of a pollutant along the food chain is also called

1. Bio-pollution
2. Bio-enhancement
3. Bio-remediation
4. Bio-magnification

Answer: 4. Bio-magnification

Question 46. A pollutant is any substance, chemical, or other factor, that changes

1. The natural balance of our environment
2. Natural geochemical cycles
3. The natural flora of our environment
4. Natural wildlife of our region

Answer: 1. The natural balance of our environment

Question 47. Which of the following is associated with biological amplification?

1. S04
2. Sewage
3. Ddt
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Ddt

Question 48. Non-biodegradable organic pollutants include

1. NPK
2. DDT
3. Nitric acid
4. Polyhydroxy butyrate

Answer: 2. Ddt

Question 49. The threshold of pain in human ears is

1. 50-60 Db
2. 30-40 Db
3. 160-180 Db
4. 120-140 Db

Answer: 4. 120-140 Db

Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 50. The component of living cells affected by the pollutant SO₂ is

1. All cell membrane system
2. Nucleus
3. Cell wall
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. All cell membrane system

Question 51. The following organism produces biodegradable plastic

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
4. Virus

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 52. The pollutant responsible for the luxuriant growth of algae which forms water bloom is

1. Phosphates
2. DDT
3. H2s
4. Sulfates

Answer: 1. Phosphates

Question 53. The highest ddt deposition shall occur in

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Seagull
3. Crabs
4. Eels

Answer: 2. Seagull

Question 54. Drained sewage has a bod

1. More than that of clear water
2. Less than that of clear water
3. Equal to that of clear water
4. None of these

Answer: 1. More than that of clear water

Question 55. Who among the following are nature’s water cleaners?

1. Producers
2. Consumers
3. Symbionts
4. Decomposers & scavangers

Answer: 4. Decomposers & scavengers

WBBSE Chapter 5 Environment And Human Population MCQs

Question 56. Population is

1. Individuals in a family
2. Species in a community
3. Individuals in a species
4. Communities in an ecosystem

Answer: 1. Individuals in a species

Question 57. The rate of adding new ones produced in a specific period is termed as

1. Mortality
2. Popularity
3. Fatality
4. Natality

Answer: 4. Natality

Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 58. Resources are of two types- renewable resources and non-renewable resources.

1. Human
2. Economic
3. Geological
4. Natural

Answer: 4. Natural

Question 59. Is the destruction or clearing of forested lands, usually to expand agricultural land or for timber harvesting.

1. Forestation
2. Deforestation
3. Agriculture
4. Silting

Answer: 2. Deforestation

Question 60. Shrinking fields is one of the biggest challenges for making food available to the world population.

1. Agricultural
2. Wheat
3. Paddy
4. Both ‘2’ and ‘3’ correct

Answer: 1. Agricultural

Question 61. The human carrying capacity of the earth is between

1. 6 To 7 billion
2. 7 To 8 billion
3. 8 To 9 billion
4. 9 To 10 billion

Answer: 4. 9 To 10 billion

Question 62. Pollution has been linked to health problems like asthma and lung disease.

1. Air
2. Water
3. Noise
4. Thermal

Answer: 1. Air

Question 63. Zero population growth is characterized by

1. No growth in population recorded in the last decade
2. The very slow rate of growth of the population
3. Constant rate of growth of population
4. Stationary growth of population in one calendar year

Answer: 1. No growth in population recorded in the last decade

Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 64. Problem(s) due to ever-increasing population is/are

1. Depletion of natural resources
2. Deforestation
3. Increased pollution
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 65. Wetlands act as the biological of the landscape

1. Lungs
2. Liver
3. Heart
4. Kidneys

Answer: 4. Kidneys

Question 66. Lower rates, along with better management of land and water resources, are necessary to avert chronic food shortages.

1. Death
2. Birth
3. Growth
4. Respiration

Answer: 2. Birth

Question 67. Produce an exaggerated response of the immune system in which a specific antibody initiates the inflammatory response.

1. Mutagens
2. Nitrogen
3. Allergens
4. Hydrogen

Answer: 3. Allergens

Question 68. Bronchitis is a disease in which the mucus membrane in the lung’s bronchial passages becomes inflamed.

1. Circulatory
2. Respiratory
3. Excretory
4. Fungal

Answer: 2. Respiratory

Question 69. Is an uncontrolled growth of cells that disrupts body tissues and organs.

1. Tumor
2. Cancer
3. Apoptosis
4. Leukemia

Answer: 2. Cancer

Question 70. Experts agree that is the single biggest avoidable cause of cancer in the world.

1. Tobacco
2. Salt
3. Sugar
4. Radiation

Answer: 1. Tobacco

Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 71. The declining phase of a population is defined by

1. Mortality > natality
2. Natality > mortality
3. Mortality = natality
4. Natality = mortality = 0

Answer: 1. Mortality > natality

Question 72. An example of an indoor allergen is

1. Pollen
2. Dust mites
3. Stone dust
4. Smoke

Answer: 2. Dust mites

Question 73. Factor(s) responsible for bronchitis is/are

1. Smoking
2. Air pollution
3. Occupational irritants
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 74. An example of a disease caused due to air pollution is

1. Jaundice
2. Typhoid
3. Asthma
4. Amoebiasis

Answer: 3. Asthma

Question 75. A common symptom of asthma is

1. Fever
2. Breathing difficulty
3. Burning sensation
4. Loss of appetite

Answer: 2. Breathing difficulty

Life Science Chapter 5 Class 10 Mcq Solutions

Question 76. If the number of pollen grains, fungal spores, and dust particles increase suddenly in the air, decide which of the following problems may increase-

1. Tuberculosis
2. Asthma
3. Malaria
4. Dengu

Answer: 2. Asthma

WBBSE Chapter 5 Topic D Biodiversity And Conservation MCQs

Question 77. Biodiversity describes the diversity of

1. Plants
2. Animals
3. Life
4. Wildlife

Answer: 3. Life

Question 78. Is a unit of the biosphere.

1. Ecosystem
2. Species
3. Biodiversity
4. Ecology

Answer: 1. Ecosystem

Question 79. The worst dangerous threat to wildlife is by

1. Hunting
2. Habitat destruction
3. Overgrazing
4. Exotic species

Answer: 2. Habitat destruction

Question 80. The Equatorial region of the earth is rich in

1. Megadiversity
2. Biodiversity
3. Minerals
4. Rainfall

Answer: 2. Biodiversity

Life Science Chapter 5 Class 10 Mcq Solutions

Question 81. Sexual reproduction plays an important role in diversity.

1. Bio
2. Eco
3. Genetic
4. Mega

Answer: 3. Genetic

Question 82. A buffer zone of the biosphere reserve is where

1. Wild animals are absent here
2. No human activity is allowed
3. Several human activities freely occur
4. Limited human activity is permitted

Answer: 4. Limited human activity is permitted

Question 83. The gums and adhesives are produced from the tree

1. Acacia
2. Arabia
3. Ficus
4. Hibiscus

Answer: 1. Acacia

Question 84. Resins are a useful product of gymnospermous wood like

1. Fern
2. Rose
3. Pinus
4. Timber

Answer: 3. Pinus

Question 85. Apis indica produces

1. Honey
2. Wax
3. Alcohol
4. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ correct

Answer: 4. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ correct

Question 86. The incorrect match for tiger reserve amongst the following is

1. Buxa – West Bengal
2. Bandipur – Karnataka
3. Kanha – Madhya Pradesh
4. Palamau – Tamilnadu

Answer: 4. Palamau – tamilnadu

Question 87. Pearls are produced by

1. Sea
2. Oysters
3. Instruments
4. Marine animals

Answer: 2. Oysters

Life Science Chapter 5 Class 10 Mcq Solutions

Question 88. Globally, the number of biodiversity hotspots are

1. 4
2. 24
3. 35
4. 44

Answer: 3. 35

Question 89. In India, rhinoceros is found in the biodiversity hotspot of

1. Eastern Himalayas
2. Western ghats
3. Indo-Burma
4. Sundaland

Answer: 1. Eastern Himalayas

Question 90. Which is not a reason for the loss of biodiversity?

1. Over-exploitation
2. Over-eating
3. Pollution
4. Introduction of exotic species

Answer: 2. Over-eating

Question 91. Which is the first national park established in India?

1. Bandipur
2. Periyar
3. Kanha
4. Corbett

Answer: 4. Corbett

Question 92. Is considered a a world heritage site by UNESCO.

1. Kolkata
2. Delhi
3. Sundarbans
4. Himalayas

Answer: 3. Sundarbans

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs

Question 93. The diversity of organisms sharing the same community or habitat is called

1. Alpha diversity
2. Beta diversity
3. Gamma diversity
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Alpha diversity

Question 94. Ex-situ conservation may be done in

1. Gene bank
2. National park
3. Zoo gardens
4. Sanctuary

Answer: 3. Zoo gardens

Question 95. The joint forest management system originated in

1. West Bengal
2. Bihar
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Sikkim

Answer: 1. West Bengal

Question 96. Tiger conservation initiative in India was started in

1. 1743
2. 1973
3. 2005
4. 1947

Answer: 2. 1973

Question 97. In India, the red panda is found in

1. Bihar
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Sikkim

Answer: 4. Sikkim

Question 98. In India, lions are conserved in

1. Sundarban
2. Manas
3. Nandankanan
4. Gir forest

Answer: 4. Gir forest

Question 99. The first biosphere reserve established in India for conserving the gene pool of flora and fauna and the lifestyle of tribals is

1. Nilgiri biosphere reserve
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
3. Thar biosphere reserve
4. Great Nicobar Biosphere reserve

Answer: 1. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5 MCQs

Question 100. The ex-situ conservation of biodiversity is done through

1. National park
2. Biosphere reserve
3. Cryopreservation of gametes
4. Wildlife sanctuary

Answer: 3. Cryopreservation of gametes

Question 101. Environmental problems affecting the Sunderban ecosystem is/are due to

1. Pollution
2. Fresh water crisis
3. Urbanization
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Objective Type Questions MCQs

Question 102. One endangered species of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot is

1. Lion-tailed macaque
2. Orangutan
3. Red Panda
4. Nilgiri tahr

Answer: 3. Red Panda

Question 103. An example of ex-situ conservation is

1. Sunderban Tiger Reserve
2. Corbet National Park
3. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
4. Cryopreservation

Answer: 4. Cryopreservation

Question 104. Gorumara, Corbett, Kulik, Nandadevi— choose the correct sequence from the following which is correct for the above forests in sequence

1. Biosphere Reserve, Sanctuary, National Park, National Park
2. National Park, National Park, Biosphere Reserve, Sanctuary
3. National Park, National Park, Sanctuary, Biosphere Reserve
4. Sanctuary, Biosphere Reserve, National Park, Sanctuary

Answer: 3. National Park, National Park, Sanctuary, Biosphere Reserve

WBBSE Chapter 4 Survival Strategies Adaptation MCQs

Question 1. Animal migration is an example of adaptation.

1. Behavioral
2. Structural
3. Functional
4. Physiological

Answer: 1. Behavioral

Question 2. Most species have reduced or lost true leaves, retaining only spines, which are highly modified leaves.

1. Sundari
2. Roses
3. Cacti
4. Plants

Answer: 3. Cacti

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The spines protect the cactus from

1. Flies
2. Birds
3. Sunlight
4. Predators

Answer: 4. Predators

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 4 MCQs

Question 4. Over time, animals that are better adapted to their environment survive and

1. Feed
2. Breed
3. Evolve
4. All above are correct

Answer: 2. Breed

Question 5. Evolution is the result of

1. Ecology
2. Adaptation
3. Survival
4. Breeding

Answer: 2. Adaptation

Question 6. The swim bladder of a fish helps in

1. Respiration
2. Circulation
3. Buoyancy
4. Excretion

Answer: 3. Buoyancy

Question 7. In fish rete mirabile is found in

1. Swim bladder
2. Heart
3. Gill
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Swim bladder

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 4 MCQs

Question 8. The number of air sacs in birds is usually

1. 2
2. 5
3. 15
4. 9

Answer: 4. 9

Question 9. An example of a mangrove plant is

1. Mango
2. Garan
3. Ginger
4. Potato

Answer: 2. Garan

Question 10. In their hump camels store

1. Water
2. Fat
3. Energy
4. Food

Answer: 2. Fat

Question 11. One of the chimpanzees’ favorite foods is

1. Tomato
2. Potato
3. Nuts
4. Rice

Answer: 3. Nuts

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 4 MCQs

Question 12. Did extensive study of the behavior of chimps.

1. Kohler
2. Darwin
3. Mendel
4. Newton

Answer: 1. Kohler

Question 13. The language of honey bees was decoded by

1. Kohler
2. Darwin
3. Mendel
4. Karl von Frisch

Answer: 4. Karl von frisch

Question 14. Honeybees indicate the direction of food sources by

1. Round dance
2. Waggle dance
3. Rock dance
4. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ are correct

Answer: 2. Waggle dance

Question 15. The erythrocytes of camels are

1. Oval shaped
2. Nonnucleated
3. Capable of resisting osmotic variations
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 16. An example of behavioral adaptation is

1. Viviparous germination
2. Dancing of worker bees
3. Modification of leaf into the spine
4. Presence of swim bladder

Answer: 4. Presence of swim bladder

Question 17. Phyllocladeisfoundin

1. Xerophytes
2. Mesophytes
3. Halophytes
4. Hydrophytes

Answer: 1. Xerophytes

Life Science Class 10 MCQs Chapter 4 Solutions

Question 18. Which of the following adaptations enables the camel to live in deserts?

1. The hump stores water
2. The thin skin acts as a good heat insulator
3. Decreased GFR in kidney
4. Large nostrils help easy expiration of water vapor

Answer: 3. Decreased GFR in kidney

Question 19. Which of the following animals shows double respiration?

1. Toad
2. Rohu fish
3. Snakes
4. Pigeon

Answer: 4. Pigeon

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 4 MCQs With Answers

Question 20. Physiologically dry soil contains

1. Adequate water
2. No water
3. A large amount of saline water
4. A small amount of water

Answer: 3. A large amount of saline water

WBBSE Chapter 4 Evolution MCQs

WBBSE Chapter 3 Topic A Heredity MCQs

Question 1. The mechanism of transmission of characters from the parental generation to the offspring is called as

1. Genetics
2. Heredity
3. Immunity
4. Eugenics

Answer: 4. Eugenics

Question 2. The idea of mixing parental characters with the offspring is known as

1. Inheritance
2. Particulate inheritance
3. Blending inheritance
4. Variation

Answer: 3. Blending inheritance

Question 3. Environmental variations are

1. Not inherited
2. Inherited
3. Congenital
4. Harmful

Answer: 1. Not inherited

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 4. Somatic variations are

1. Acquired
2. Genetic
3. Inherited
4. Transmissible

Answer: 1. Acquired

Question 5. Variations are usually caused by

1. Evolution
2. Adaptation
3. Asexual reproduction
4. Mutation

Answer: 4. Mutation

Question 6. Which one of the following pairs is not contrasting?

1. Tall & dwarf
2. Axial & terminal
3. Yellow & green
4. Round & light

Answer: 4. Round & light

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Mcqs

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 3 MCQs With Answers

Question 7. Mendel performed experiments on

1. Fruit fly
2. Guineapig
3. Garden pea (pisum sativum)
4. Sweet pea (lathynus)

Answer: 3. Garden pea (Pisum sativum)

Question 8. Mendel’s concept gave birth to the theory of inheritance.

1. Particulate
2. Blending
3. Mendelian
4. Darwinian

Answer: 1. Particulate

Question 9. An organism with two copies of the same allele is

1. Heterozygous for that trait
2. Heterologous for that allele
3. Homozygous for that trait
4. Homologous for that allele

Answer: 3. Homozygous for that trait

Question 10. Mendelian laws of heredity are connected with

1. Segregation, dominance & independent assortment
2. Segregation, independent assortment & re-combination
3. Gene linkage, segregation & independent assortment
4. Gene linkage, dominance & independent assortment

Answer: 1. Segregation, dominance & independent assortment

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Mcqs

Question 11. Gene mutations are also known as

1. Inversion
2. Point mutation
3. Deletion
4. Translocation

Answer: 2. Point mutation

Question 12. A diploid individual’s chromosome is

1. N
2. 2N
3. 3N
4. 2N+l

Answer: 4. 2N+l

Question 13. In humans, tongue-rolling characteristics are found in

1. A few
2. All
3. None
4. Most

Answer: 4. Most

Question 14. The attached ear lobe character in humans is

1. Non-genetic
2. Dominant
3. Recessive
4. Very useful

Answer: 3. Recessive

Question 15. An alternative form of a gene, located at a specific position on a specific chromosome is called

1. Locus
2. Trait
3. Variety
4. Allele

Answer: 4. Variety

Question 16. The specific location of a gene on a chromosome is called its

1. Locus
2. Allele
3. Trait
4. Variety

Answer: 1. Locus

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Chapter 3 Solutions 

Question 17. Mendelian factors are now called

1. Alleles
2. Genes
3. Mutants
4. Loci

Answer: 2. Genes

Question 18. A genetic cross dealing with two character differences is called

1. Monohybrid cross
2. Dihybrid cross
3. Trihybrid cross
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Dihybrid cross

Question 19. The genotype ‘as’ is

1. Allozygous
2. Heterozygous
3. Homozygous
4. Hemizygous

Answer: 2. Heterozygous

Question 20. The character that is expressed in the heterozygous condition is

1. Allele
2. Hybrid
3. Dominant
4. Recessive

Answer: 3. Dominant

WBBSE Life Science Chapter 3 Heredity Solved MCQs

Question 21. The outer expression of a character is its

1. Phenotype
2. Genotype
3. Trait
4. Allele

Answer: 1. Phenotype

Question 22. Pea plants normally perform

1. Asexual reproduction
2. Vegetative reproduction
3. Cross-fertilization
4. Self-fertilization

Answer: 4. Self-fertilization

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Chapter 3 Solutions 

Question 23. In case of incomplete dominance in the F₂ generation

1. The genotypic ratio = 3:1
2. The phenotypic ratio = 3:1
3. The genotypic ratio = phenotypic ratio
4. The genotypic ratio phenotypic ratio

Answer: 3. The genotypic ratio = phenotypic ratio

Question 24. The F₂ phenotypic ratio of the Mendelian dihybrid cross is

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 9:3:3:L
3. 3:1
4. 1:2:1

Answer: 3. 3:1

Question 25. The case of incomplete dominance is observed in

1. Pisum sativum
2. Drosophila melanogaster
3. Mirabilis jalapa
4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Mirabilis jalapa

Question 26. Human males are

1. Homogametic
2. Heterogametic
3. Homozygous
4. Heterozygous

Answer: 2. Heterogametic

Question 27. Sry is present in human

1. Y chromosome
2. X chromosome
3. Autosome
4. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ correct

Answer: 1. Y chromosome

Class 10 Life Science Mcq With Answers

Question 28. In men, sperm contain autosomes and

1. Both the x and y chromosomes
2. Either the x or y chromosome
3. Only y chromosome
4. Only x chromosome

Answer: 2. Either x or y chromosome

Question 29. If a homozygous dominant red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive white-flowered plant, the offspring will be

1. Half red flowered
2. Half white flowered
3. All red flowered
4. All pink flowered

Answer: 3. All red flowered

Question 28. Independent assortment can be proved by

1. Back cross
2. Test cross
3. Monohybrid cross
4. Dihybrid cross

Answer: 2. Test cross

Question 29. A cross between black and white birds results in all blue in the F₁ generation. Then the cross between bluebirds in the F₂ generation would result in

1. 3 Blue: 1 white
2. 1 Blue: 1 black: 1 white
3. 9 Blue : 3 black : 3 white
4. 1 Black: 1 white: 2 blue

Answer: 3. 9 Blue : 3 black : 3 white

Question 30. The four daughter cells derived from single meiosis differ from each other due to

1. The difference is chromosome number
2. Crossing over only
3. Independent assortment of chromosomes only
4. Crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes

Answer: 4. Crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes

Question 31. The number of distinct traits selected by Mendel in garden peas for his breeding experiments are

1. 7
2. 2
3. 4
4. 8

Answer: 4. 8

Class 10 Life Science Mcq With Answers

Question 32. When two hybrids undergo crossing in a monohybrid cross, then the percentage of recessive is

1. 50
2. 25
3. 100
4. 75

Answer: 4. 75

Question 33. If a couple has 5 daughters, the percentage probability of the other child being a girl is

1. 25
2. 100
3. 75
4. 50

Answer: 1. 25

Objective Type Questions MCQs

Question 1. Which of the following traits in the pea plant is recessive?

1. Wrinkled seed
2. Yellow colored seed
3. Purple colored flower
4. Axial flower

Answer: wrinkled seed.

Question 2. How many types of gametes are formed from pea plants having the genotype yy rr?

1. 1
2. 4
3. 2
4. 3

Answer: 4.

Question 3. Which one of the following is the genotypic ratio at the F₂ generation of Mendel’s monohybrid cross?

1. 1:2:1
2. 3:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 2:1:2

Answer: 1:2:1

Question 4. What would be the phenotypic ratio in the F₂ generation of a monohybrid cross in case of incomplete dominance?

1. 3:1
2. 2:1:1
3. 9:3:3:L
4. 1:2:1

Answer: 1:2:1

Question 5. Identify which of the following is a dominant trait

1. Length of the stem – dwarf
2. The shape of the seed – wrinkled
3. Color of the cotyledon – yellow
4. Color of the flower – white

Answer: the color of the cotyledon – yellow

Life Science Class 10 Wbbse Multiple Choice

Question  6. Assess how many types of gametes are produced from the pea plant having the genotype rryy —

1. One type
2. Four types
3. Two types
4. Three types

Answer: one type

Question 7. Select which of the following two genotypes are responsible for the expression of the phenotype wrinkled yellow in Pea plant

1. RRYY and rryy
2. RRYy and RrYy
3. RRyy and Rryy
4. rrYY and rrYy

Answer: rrYY and rrYy

Life Science Class 10 Wbbse Multiple Choice

WBBSE Chapter 3 Some Common Genetic Diseases MCQs

Question 1. Genetic Disorders Are

1. Harmless
2. Inherited
3. Contagious
4. Lethal

Answer: 2. Inherited

Question 2. Haemophilia Is Related To

1. Blood
2. Bone
3. Nerve
4. Kidney

Answer: 1. Blood

Question 3. Color Blindness Is

1. Sex-Linked Dominant
2. Autosomal Dominant
3. Sex-Linked Recessive
4. Autosomal Recessive

Answer: 3. Sex-Linked Recessive

Question 4. Thalassemia Is

1. Infectious
2. Curable
3. Environmental
4. Genetic

Answer: 4. Genetic

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Mcqs

Question 5. Haemophilia B Is Also Known As

1. Anaemia
2. Thalassemia
3. Christmas Disease
4. Factor Viii Deficiency

Answer: 3. Christmas Disease

Question 6. The Most Common Type Of Colour Blindness Is

1. Red-Green
2. Blue-Yellow
3. Blue-Green
4. None Above

Answer: 1. Red-Green

Question 7. The Chromosome Carrying Sex-Linked Gene Is

1. Autosomes
2. Y Chromosome
3. X Chromosome
4. None Of These

Answer: 3. X Chromosome

Question 8. Holandric Genes Are Ones Situated On

1. X Chromosome
2. Y Chromosome
3. Both A & B
4. Autosomes

Answer: 2. Y Chromosome

Question 9. A Man Known To Be A Victim Of Haemophilia Mar-Ries A Normal Woman Whose Father Was Known To Be Bleeder; Then It May Be Expected That

1. All Their Children Would Be Bleeders
2. Half Of Their Sons Would Be Bleeders
3. One-fourth of Their Children Would Be Bleed-Ers
4. All Would Be Normal

Answer: 2. Half Of Their Sons Would Be Bleeders

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Chapter 3 Solutions

Question 10. Red Green Colour Blindness Is Also Known As

1. Protanopia
2. Deuteranopia
3. Phobia
4. Both 1&2

Answer: 4. Both 1&2

Question 11. A Colourblind Man, Both Of Whose Parents Had Normal Vision And Whose Paternal And Maternal Grandparents Had Normal Vision, Probably Inher-Ited The Gene For Colourblindness From His

1. Maternal Or Paternal Grandmother
2. Maternal Or Paternal Grand Father
3. Mother
4. Father

Answer: 3. Mother

Question 12. Daltonism Can Occur In Females Due To

1. Homozygous Condition In Which Both X chromosomes Are Mutated At The Same Locus
2. Heterozygous Condition Of X Chromosome
3. Homozygous Condition Of Y Chromosome
4. None Of These

Answer: 1. Homozygous Condition In Which Both X chromosomes Are Mutated At The Same Locus

Question 13. The Daughters Born To a Haemophilic Father And Normal Mother Could Be

1. Normal
2. Carrier
3. Haemophilic
4. All Of These

Answer: 2. Carrier

Question 14. Color Blindness Is Related to a Defect In

1. Rods
2. Cones
3. Eye Muscles
4. Cornea

Answer: 2. Cones

Question 15. Haemophilia Is A Genetic Disorder In Which

1. Blood Fails To Coagulate After An Injury
2. There Is Delayed Coagulation Of the Blood
3. Blood Clots In Blood Vessels
4. Blood Cell Count Falls

Answer: 2. There Is Delayed Coagulation Of Blood

Question 16. A Cross Between A Normal Homozygous Woman And A Haemophilic Man Will Result In How Many Sons Having The Above Disease?

1. 0%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%

Answer: 1. 0%

Question 17. If You Are Missing One Of The Four Alpha Chain Genes, Then You Are Suffering From Which Type Of Alpha Thalassemia?

1. Silent Carrier
2. Alpha Thalassemia Minor
3. Alpha Thalassemia Major
4. Haemoglobin H Disease

Answer: 1. Silent Carrier

Wbbse Class 10 Life Science Chapter 3 Solutions

Question 18. Which Type Of Thalassemia Is Also Called Cooley’s Anaemia?

1. Alpha Thalassemia Major
2. Beta Thalassemia Major
3. Beta Thalassemia Minor
4. Hydrops Fetalis

Answer: 2. Beta Thalassemia Major

Question 19. What Are The Factors That Increase The Risk Of Thalassemia Disease?

1. Family History
2. Certain Ancestry
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Superstition

Answer: 3. Both 1 & 2

Question 20. A Good Genetic Counsellor Should Have Skills Of

1. Genetics And Hereditary Disease
2. Active Listening, Comprehension & Complex Problem Solving
3. Social Perceptiveness
4. All Of These

Answer: 4. All Of These

WBBSE Chapter 2 Cell Division And Cell Cycle MCQs

1. Lamarck
2. Fleming
3. Virchow
4. Schleiden

1. The cell’s DNA replicates during G1
2. It consists of mitosis and interphase
3. A cell can remain in g1 for weeks or much longer
4. Most proteins are formed throughout all subphases of interphase

1. Nuclei
2. Chromosomes
3. Cell membranes
4. Vacuoles

Answer: 2. Chromosomes

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 4. The main function of a gene is to

1. Regulate cellular respiration
2. Synthesize proteins & enzymes and guide cell function
3. Assist the metabolism of fat
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs

Question 5. Which is not a nitrogenous base of DNA?

1. Adenine
2. Guanine (g)
3. Cytosine
4. Uracil(u)

Answer: 4. Uracil(u)

Question 6. Are long thread-like structures made of a DNA molecule and protein.

1. Nuclei
2. Chromosomes
3. Genes
4. RNAs

Answer: 2. Chromosomes

Question 7. Each of our body cells contains pairs of chromosomes.

1. 23
2. 46
3. 11
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. 23

Question 8. The sex chromosomes of human males are

1. XX
2. XY
3. YY
4. ZZ

Answer: 2. XY

Question 9. Pictures of chromosomes arranged in pairs are known as

1. Histogram
2. Chronogram
3. Cardiogram
4. Karyogram

Answer: 4. Karyogram

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs

Question 10. Cells with a haploid number of chromosomes are produced by

1. Mitosis
2. Amitosis
3. Meiosis
4. Cell division

Answer: 3. Meiosis

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs With Answers

Question 11. The twenty-third pair of chromosomes in man is known as

1. Heterosome
2. Chromatid
3. Autosome
4. Gene

Answer: 1. Heterosome

Question 12. At mitotic metaphase, each chromosome consists of two symmetrical structures called

1. Centrioles
2. Genes
3. Spindle fibers
4. Chromatids

Answer: 4. Chromatids

Question 13. Are v-shaped chromosomes in which the centromere lies in the middle of the chromosome so that the two arms are almost equal.

1. Telocentric
2. Acrocentric
3. Metacentric
4. Sub-metacentric

Answer: 3. Metacentric

Question 14. Secondary constrictions are also called

1. DNA
2. NOR
3. RNA
4. Centromeres

Answer: 2. NOR

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs

Question 15. Different types of chromosomes can be recognized by the position of the following separating the two arms

1. Telomeres
2. Micromeres
3. Macromeres
4. Centromeres

Answer: 4. Centromeres

Question 16. Chromatin is composed of DNA, RNA and

1. Gene
2. Nucleic acid
3. Protein
4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Protein

Question 17. Deoxyribose sugar is

1. Pentose
2. Hexose
3. Triose
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Pentose

Question 18. Chromosomes contain proteins.

1. Histone
2. Peptone
3. Chromatin
4. Ribose

Answer: 1. Histone

Question 19. Regions of the chromosomes containing genes are

1. Euchromatin
2. Chromatin
3. Heterochromatin
4. Centromere

Answer: 1. Euchromatin

Continuity Of Life MCQs For Class 10 Board Exams

Question 20. Cytokinesis refers to

1. Division of nuclei
2. Division of cytoplasm
3. Division of chromosomes
4. Completion of cell division

Answer: 2. Division of cytoplasm

Question 21. In sexual reproduction

1. The chromosome number is reduced during mitosis
2. The zygote is usually haploid
3. Gametes are usually haploid
4. Gametes are usually diploid

Answer: 3. Gametes are usually haploid

Question 22. Microtubules are thick, strong spirals of thousands of subunits known as\

1. Proteins
2. Fibers
3. Spindles
4. Tubulin

Answer: 4. Tubulin

Question 23. Mitochondrial production is also vital for cell division.

1. DNA
2. ATP
3. BMR
4. ADP

Answer: 2. ATP

Question 24. Is also known as reductional cell division.

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis
3. Amitosis
4. Binary fission

Answer: 2. Meiosis

Question 25. Is the time when a cell will leave the cycle and quit dividing.

1. G₀
2. G₁
3. G₂
4. S

Answer: 1. G₀

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 Multiple Choice

Question 26. The chromosome set is

1. The same for all organisms
2. Varies with the age of the organisms
3. Same for all the plants
4. Constant for a given species

Answer: 4. Constant for a given species

Question 27. Mitotic nuclear division is called

1. Cytokinesis
2. Akinesis
3. Karyokinesis
4. Ookinesis

Answer: 3. Karyokinesis

Question 28. Karyokinesis does not include

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Cytokinesis

Answer: 4. Cytokinesis

Question 29. Chromosomes are arranged in the equator of the cell during

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Answer: 2. Metaphase

Question 30. Crossing over occurs during

1. Meiosis I
2. Meiosis II
3. Amitosis
4. Mitosis

Answer: 1. Meiosis I

MCQs For Continuity Of Life WBBSE

Question 31. Which of the following statements is true?

1. A diploid cell produces four diploid cells in meiosis
2. The chromosome number is reduced to half in daughter cells in mitosis
3. The chromosome number remains the same as the parent cell in meiosis
4. The daughter cell receives both maternal and paternal chromosomes of the homologous pair in meiosis

Answer: 4. The daughter cell receives both maternal and paternal chromosomes of the homologous pair in meiosis

Question 32. During mitosis, each chromosome at the beginning of the prophase is

1. Single-threaded
2. Paired structure
3. Four threaded
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Paired structure

Question 33. In mitotic cell division the

1. The amount of DNA in the daughter cells will be equal to the parent cell
2. The size will be half of the parent cell
3. DNA will be double the parent cell
4. Both (1) & (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) & (2)

Question 34. Which of the following is true for mitosis?

1. No chiasma formation
2. No crossing over
3. Prophase has no substage
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science MCQs

Question 35. Identify the pair of nucleotides that are joined by hydrogen bonds in double-stranded DNA.

1. AG & CG
2. TG & CG
3. AT & CG
4. At & TG

Answer: 3. AT & CG

Question 36. Chromosomes do not have a well-defined structure in

1. Interphase
2. Prophase
3. Metaphase
4. Telophase

Answer: 1. Interphase

Question 37. Crossing over is the

1. Exchange of genetic material
2. Deletion of chromosomes
3. Linkage of chromosomes
4. Inversion of chromosomes

Answer: 1. Exchange of genetic material

Question 38. If the number of chromosomes in most body cells of a mammal is 40, the cells in the seminiferous tubule will have

1. 40 Chromosomes
2. 23 Chromosomes
3. 20 Chromosomes
4. 11 Chromosomes

Answer: 3. 20 Chromosomes

Question 39. Chromosomes which have a definite role in sex determination are

1. Lysosomes
2. Allosomes
3. Giant chromosomes
4. Autosomes

Answer: 2. Allosomes

Question 40. Crossing over occurs between

1. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
2. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
3. Any chromosomes
4. Sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes

Answer: 1. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

Question 41. Which of the following is true?

1. Meiosis maintains a constant number of chromosomes in an organism
2. Meiosis provides an opportunity for the exchange of genes
3. Meiosis causes genetic variations among the species
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 42. The characteristic structure called phragmoplast formed during plant cell division is the precursor of

1. Chloroplast
2. Phragmosomes
3. Cell wall
4. Vacuoles

Answer: 3. Cell wall

Question 43. There can not be mitotic division in one of the following cells. Identify the cell

1. Bone cell
2. Sperm
3. Zygote
4. New red blood cells

Answer: 2. Sperm

Question 44. The complete process of meiosis involves

1. One cytoplasmic division with only one chromosome reduction
2. Two cytoplasmic divisions with one reduction of chromosomes
3. Two cytoplasmic divisions with two reductions of chromosomes
4. One cytoplasmic division with two reductions of chromosomes

Answer: 2. Two cytoplasmic divisions with one reduction of chromosomes

Question 45. Amitosis is

1. Division involving the formation of chromosome bridges
2. Division involving spindle formation
3. Division in which chromosomes are unequally distributed
4. Cleavage of the nucleus without recognizable chromosome distribution

Answer: 4. Cleavage of the nucleus without recognizable chromosome distribution

West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science MCQs

Chapter 2 Topic B Reproduction Review Questions MCQs

Question 46. Bulbil is a modification of

1. Stem
2. Root
3. Leaf
4. Bud

Answer: 4. Bud

Question 47. The animal that reproduces by multiple fission is

1. Amoeba
2. Paramoecium
3. Euglena
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 48. The organism that shows fragmentation is

1. Rhizobium
2. Glocecapsa
3. Oscillatoria
4. Bacillus

Answer: 3. Oscillatoria

Question 49. The most developed artificial propagation method is

1. Grafting
2. Gootee
3. Layering
4. Budding

Answer: 1. Grafting

Question 50. The following animal may develop by parthenogenesis:

1. Queen bee
2. Worker bee
3. Drones
4. Butterfly

Answer: 2. Worker bee

Question 51. The unit of asexual reproduction is

1. Bud
2. Gamate
3. Spore
4. Callus

Answer: 3. Spore

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 Important MCQs

Question 52. Which one is related to sexual reproduction?

1. Amitosis
2. Mitosis
3. Budding
4. Meiosis

Answer: 4. Meiosis

Question 53. Production of fruit without fertilization is known as

1. Parthenogenesis
2. Paedogenesis
3. Parthenocarpy
4. Neoteny

Answer: 3. Parthenocarpy

Question 54. Which type of reproduction paves the pathway of evolution?

1. Vegetative reproduction
2. Asexual reproduction
3. Sexual reproduction
4. Parthenogenesis

Answer: 3. Sexual reproduction

Question 55. Which one is not formed due to sexual reproduction?

1. Zoospore
2. Zygospore
3. Oospore
4. Zygote

Answer: 1. Zoospore

Question 56. Yeast reproduces by

1. Fission
2. Budding
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 3. Both

Question 57. The first diploid cell resulting from sexual reproduction is

1. Embryo
2. Zygote
3. Spore mother cell
4. Larva

Answer: 2. Zygote

Question 58. Which one is not an underground stem?

1. Rhizome
2. Tuber
3. Bulb
4. Runner

Answer: 4. Runner

Question 59. Gametes are

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Either haploid or diploid
4. None of them

Answer: 1. Haploid

Question 60. The propagating organ for ginger is

1. Runner
2. Tuber
3. Rhizome
4. Corm

Answer: 3. Rhizome

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 Important MCQs

Question 61. The propagating organ for onion is

1. Offset
2. Sucker
3. Bullb
4. Bulbil

Answer: 3. Bullb

Question 62. The gametes that look identical are called

1. Isogamete
2. Anisogamete
3. Oogamete
4. Heterogamete.

Answer: 1. Isogamete

Question 63. The following organism may exhibit spore

1. Amoeba
2. Rhizopus
3. Paramoecium
4. Plasmodium

Answer: 2. Rhizopus

Question 64. The animal that does not show regeneration is

1. Planaria
2. Hydra
3. Ascaris
4. Starfish

Answer: 3. Ascaris

Question 65. Which one of the following methods is not a method of artificial vegetative propagation?

1. Grafting
2. Budding
3. Hybridization
4. Layering

Answer: 3. Hybridization

Question 66. The vegetative method of reproduction adopted for plants with longer seed dormancy is

1. Cutting
2. Layering
3. Budding
4. Grafting

Answer: 4. Grafting

Question 67. The part of the plant which remains close to the ground is

1. Stock
2. Scion
3. Sucker
4. Offset

Answer: 1. Stock

Question 68. Which one of the following reproduces with the help of a leaf?

1. Pteris
2. Oxalis
3. Bryophyllum
4. Banana

Answer: 3. Bryophyllum

Question 69. Which method results in the mixing of features of two separate plants?

1. Layering
2. Grafting
3. Gootee
4. Budding

Answer: 2. Grafting

Question 70. Which one of the following is true for vegetative reproduction?

1. It is both natural and artificial, producing genetically identical plants
2. It is natural
3. It is artificial
4. It is both natural and artificial, producing genetically different plants.

Answer: 4. It is both natural and artificial, producing genetically different plants.

Question 71. The following plant reproduces by vegetative means

1. Banana
2. Oxalis
3. Water hyacinth
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 72. The following hormone induces rooting after cutting

1. IBA
2. IAA
3. GA3
4. Ethylene

Answer: 2. IAA

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 2 Important MCQs

Question 73. The following plant reproduces by root bud

1. Dahlia
2. Sweet potato
3. Both
4. Water hyacinth

Answer: 3. Both

Question 74. Which one of the following processes is related to root induction

1. Cutting
2. Micropropagation
3. Grafting
4. Budding

Answer: 1. Cutting

Question 75. In grafting, the plant part that joins with the stock is called

1. Scion
2. Bud graft
3. Transplant
4. Shoot

Answer: 1. Scion

Question 76. The following plant reproduces with a fleshy root

1. Amanda
2. Dahlia
3. Asparagus
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 77. Potato tuber reproduces with

1. Apical bud
2. Axillary bud
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 3. Both

Question 78. The plant that reproduces by rhizome is

1. Ginger
2. Lotus
3. Turmeric
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 79. The plant that reproduces with Gootee is

1. Mango
2. Guava
3. Lemon
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 80. The animal that reproduces by conjugation is

1. Paramoecium
2. Tapeworm
3. Roundworm
4. Earthworm

Answer: 1. Paramoecium

Question 36. The largest plant production method of vegetative reproduction is

1. Stem cuttings
2. Root cuttings
3. Micropropagation
4. Grafting

Answer: 3. Micropropagation

Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs with Answers Class 10

Question 37. A totipotent cell means

1. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant
2. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a complete embryo
3. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an organ
4. A cell that cannot differentiate into an organ or system

Answer: 1. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant

Question 38. Which of the following plant cells show totipotency?

1. Sieve tubes
2. Xylem vessels
3. Meristem
4. Cork cells

Answer: 3. Meristem

Question 39. Asexually produced organisms inheriting all the characteristics of the parent are

1. Offspring
2. Clone
3. Variety
4. Hybrid

Answer: 2. Clone

Question 40. Which is connected to asexual reproduction?

1. Gemmules
2. Gametes
3. Gonads
4. Genitalia

Answer: 1. Gemmules

Question 41. Any cell, tissue, or organ removed from a plant for culturing is called

1. Stock
2. Scion
3. Explant
4. Embryoid

Answer: 2. Scion

Question 42. When two different individuals participate in vegetative reproduction, it is called

1. Cutting
2. Grafting
3. Pollination
4. Layering

Answer: 2. Grafting

Question 43. Parthenogenesis is

1. Development of embryo without fertilization
2. Development of fruit without fertilization
3. Development of fruit without hormone
4. Development of embryo from an egg without fertilization

Answer: 3. Development of fruit without hormone

Question 44. In which of the following modes of asexual reproduction, a mother cell produces innumerable unicellular uninucleate offspring?

1. Fragmentation
2. Multiple fission
3. Sporulation
4. Parthenogenesis

Answer: 2. Multiple fission

Question 45. In oogamy, fertilization involves

1. A large nonmotile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
2. A large nonmotile female gamete and a small nonmotile male gamete
3. A large motile female gamete and a small nonmotile male gamete
4. A small nonmotile female gamete and a large motile male gamete

Answer: 1. A large nonmotile female gamete and a small nonmotile male gamete

Question 46. Why is asexual reproduction sometimes disadvantageous?

1. It allows animals to produce many offspring quickly
2. It produces a genetically uniform population
3. It allows sedentary animals to produce offspring without mates
4. It saves time and energy in gamete formation

Answer: 2. It allows sedentary animals to produce offspring without mates

Life Science Chapter 2 MCQs with Answers Class 10

Question 47. When an animal is cut into pieces, each piece is found to grow into a complex organism. Name the process.

1. Budding
2. Fragmentation
3. Spore formation
4. Regeneration

Answer: 4. Regeneration

Question 48. In grafting contact is made between

1. Phloem
2. Xylem
3. Cambium
4. Flower

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 49. Which of the following statements supports the view that elaborates sexual reproductive processes appeared much later in the organic evolution?

1. Lower groups of organisms have a simpler body design
2. Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups.
3. Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms.
4. The high incidence of sexual reproduction in angiosperms and vertebrates.

Choose the correct answer from the given options:

1. 1&3
2. 1&2
3. 2&4
4. 2&3

Answer: 3. 2&4

Question 50. There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on

1. The morphology of the organism
2. The habitat of the organism
3. The morphology and physiology of the organism
4. The habitat, physiology, and genetic makeup of the organism

Answer: 4. The habitat, physiology, and genetic makeup of the organism

Chapter 2 Topic C Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants Review Questions MCQs

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

1. Protection
2. Photosynthesis
3. Both
4. None

1. Autogamy
2. Allogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy

1. Absence of Calyx and corolla
2. Absence of androecium
3. Absence of gynoecium
4. Both 2 & 3

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium

1. Incomplete
2. Unisexual
3. Intersexual
4. Neuter

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium

1. Secretion of nectar
2. Pollination
3. To increase the beauty of the plant
4. Reproduction

1. Rice
2. Mango
3. Orchid
4. Akanda

1. Magnolia
2. Sagittaria
3. Hydrilla
4. Akanda

1. Ovule
2. Embryo
3. Seed
4. Fruit

1. Simul
2. Paddy
3. Kadam
4. Neem

1. Corolla & carpel
2. Calyx & corolla
3. Calyx and gynoecium
4. Androecium & gynoecium

1. Corolla
2. Style
3. Stigma
4. Ovary

1. Cleistogamy
2. Homogamy
3. Herkogamy
4. All of these

1. Superior progeny
2. Weaker progeny
3. Formation of male offspring
4. Formation of seeds

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

1. N
2. 2N
3. 3N
4. 4N

1. Heterogamous
2. Homogamous
3. Dichogamous
4. Cleistogamous

1. Air
2. Water
3. Insects
4. Birds

1. Moths
2. Bees
3. Beetles
4. Butterflies

1. Pollination by birds
2. Pollination by insects
3. Pollination by wind
4. Pollination by water

1. Fusion of male gamete with antipodal cell
2. Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus
3. Fusion of male gamete with the egg cell
4. Fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell and another with a secondary nucleus

WBBSE Chapter 1 Sensitivity And Response In Plants Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The ability of a plant to react to external stimuli is

1. Movement
2. Locomotion
3. Evolution
4. Irritability

Answer: 4. Irritability

Question 2. The instrument with which sir. c. Bose proved the phenomenon of reacting to stimulus is

1. Seismograph
2. Crescograph
3. Lithograph
4. Sonometer

Answer: 2. Crescograph

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The movement of variation is controlled by

1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Transpiration
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Osmosis

Question 4. The following plant is capable of locomotion

1. Mimosa
2. Desmodium
3. Gourd
4. Volvox

Answer: 4. Volvox

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs

Question 5. The movement offers antherozoid to archegonium is called

1. Photonasty
2. Chemonasty
3. Nyctinasty
4. Sismonasty

Answer: 2. Chemonasty

Question 6. The plant movement that is controlled by auxin is

1. Tactic
2. Nastic
3. Tropic
4. Movement of variation

Answer: 2. Nastic

Question 7. The movement of Chlamydomonas towards light is called

1. Phototaxis
2. Phototropism
3. Photonastism
4. Chemotaxis

Answer: 3. Photonastism

Question 8. The tactic movement controlled by an electric current is

1. Hydrotactic
2. Thermotactic
3. Rheotactic
4. Galvanotactic

Answer: 4. Galvanotactic

Question 9. The movement of plant roots against gravity is known as

1. Positively geotropic
2. Aerotropic
3. Positively hydrotropic
4. Positively rheotropic

Answer: 2. Aerotropic

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs

Question 10. When a plant stem grows opposite to water, it is called

1. Positively phototropic
2. Negatively phototropic
3. Positively geotropic
4. Negatively geotropic

Answer: 2. Negatively phototropic

Question 11. The movement of drosera lea felt towards insects is called

1. Photonasty
2. Chemonasty
3. Nyctinasty
4. Seismonasty

Answer: 2. Chemonasty

Question 12. The plant movement depending on the intensity of the stimulus is

1. Tactic
2. Tropic
3. Nastic
4. Variation

Answer: 2. Tropic

Question 13. The nastic movement that is controlled by both light and temperature is

1. Photonasty
2. Thermonasty
3. Nyctinasty
4. Seismonasty

Answer: 3. Nyctinasty

Question 14. The movement of plants involving actual displacement is

1. Tropism
2. Taxes
3. Nastism
4. Amoeboid movement

Answer: 2. Taxism

Question 15. The movement of curvature whose direction is controlled by the direction of the stimulus is

1. Tactic
2. Tropic
3. Nastic
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Tropic

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs With Answers

Question 16. In comparison to geotropism, which one is a greater force?

1. Chemotropism
2. Hydrotropism
3. Thigmotropism
4. Phototropism

Answer: 2. Hydrotropism

Question 17. The following organism shows amoeboid movement

1. Myxamoeba
2. Fungi
3. Algae
4. Myxomycetes

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 18. The movement that both Chlamys Doonas and Volvox exhibit is

1. Phototropism
2. Geotropism
3. Phototaxis
4. Chemotaxis

Answer: 3. Phototaxis

Question 19. The movement involved in the opening of the tulip flower is

1. Nyctinasty
2. Photonasty
3. Thigmonasty
4. Thermonasty

Answer: 4. Thermonasty

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

Question 20. The following plant movement is due to the growth

1. Nutation
2. Hyponasty
3. Epinasty
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 21. The closing of leaflets in Cisalpine is

1. Photonasty
2. Thermonasty
3. Nyctinasty
4. Seismonasty

Answer: 4. Seismonasty

Question 22. The primary root is:

Positively geotropic, Positively hydrotropic, Negatively geotropic, Negatively hydrotropic

1. 1, 3 Correct
2. 2, 4 Correct
3. 1, 2 Correct
4. 1, 2, 3 Correct

Answer: 3. 1, 2 Correct

Question 23. The opening and closing of a sunflower are also called

1. Photonasty
2. Chemonasty
3. Thermonasty
4. Seismonasty

Answer: 1. Photonasty

Question 24. The movement of tendrils of the pea is

1. Nutation
2. Circumnutation
3. Phototropism
4. Thigmotropism

Answer: 2. Circumnutation

Question 25. The movement that occurs in plants due to touch is

1. Thigmonasty
2. Thigmotropism
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 3. Both

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

Question 26. The response toward a stimulus is said to be

1. Negative
2. Avoidance
3. Positive
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Positive

WBBSE Chapter 1 Response And Chemical Coordination In Plant Hormones

Question 27. Who for the first time mentioned plant hormones?

1. Hugo de Vries
2. Charles Darwin
3. Gregor johann mendel
4. Robert Hooke

Answer: 2. Charles Darwin

Question 28. Which one is the natural auxin?

1. IAA
2. 2, 4-D
3. 2, 4, 5—T
4. Ga4

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 29. The hormone that helps in the ripening of fruit is

1. Florigen
2. Gibberellin
3. Ethylene
4. Auxin

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Important MCQs

Question 30. Which hormone is produced in the leaf but helps in flowering?

1. Phytochrome
2. Auxin
3. Gibberellin
4. Florigen

Answer: 3. Gibberellin

Question 31. Which hormone is produced in the coleoptile?

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Florigen

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 32. Which hormone is used as a weedicide?

1. lAA
2. 2,4-D
3. GA
4. MCPA

Answer: 2. 2,4-D

Question 33. Name the hypothetical hormone that induces flowering.

1. Auxin
2. Kinetin
3. Ethylene
4. Florigen

Answer: 4. Florigen

Question 34. Name the hormone that helps in the growth of the axillary bud.

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Kinetin
4. Florigen

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Important MCQs

Question 35. The hormone that is produced in a maximum amount in the matured seed is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Kinetin
4. Zeatin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Questions For WBBSE

Question 36. The hormone that is present in coconut milk is

1. Kinetin
2. Auxin
3. Ethylene
4. None of them

Answer: 1. Kinetin

Question 37. The hormone that helps in the production of seedless fruit is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Kinetin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 3. Kinetin

Question 38. The following hormone does not contain nitrogen

1. 2,4-D
2. Iaa
3. Ga₃
4. Kinetin

Answer: 3. Ga₃

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Important MCQs

Question 39. Substances that originate at the tip of the stem and control growth elsewhere are known as

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Vitamins
4. Growth inhibitors

Answer: 2. Hormones

Question 40. The following hormone is terpenoid in nature

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Kinetin
4. Zeatin

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 41. The hormone that is not a growth promoter

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Abscisic acid
4. Kinetin

Answer: 3. Abscisic acid

Question 42. The hormone that helps in removing dwarfism is

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Abscisic acid

Answer: 2. Gibberellin

Question 43. Name the hormone whose precursor is tryptophan.

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 44. Name the hormone that induces apical dominance.

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 1. Auxin

Question 45. The hormone that may act as an anti-auxin

1. ABA
2. Ga₃
3. Florigen
4. Ethylene

Answer: 1. ABA

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Quiz

Question 46. Hormone primarily connected with cell division is

1. Ga
2. Cytokinin
3. Naa
4. IAA

Answer: 2. Cytokinin

Question 47. Name the non-indole auxin.

1. IAA
2. IBA
3. IPA
4. NAA

Answer: 4. NAA

Question 49. Which hormone is responsible for the Richmond lang effect?

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Cytokinin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 3. Cytokinin

Question 50. Which one of the following is a rejuvenating hormone?

1. IAA
2. Ga₃
3. Kinetin
4. ABA

Answer: 3. Kinetin

Question 51. The hormone that is present in maize seed is

1. Kinetin
2. Zeatin
3. Iaa
4. Ga₃

Answer: 2. Zeatin

Question 52. The following hormone induces the closure of stomata

1. ABA
2. IBA
3. 2,4-D
4. Zeatin

Answer: 1. ABA

Question 53. Which is employed for the artificial ripening of banana fruit?

1. Auxin
2. Cytokinin
3. Coumarin
4. Ethylene

Answer: 4. Ethylene

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Quiz

Question 54. Apical dominance is caused by

1. Abscisic acid in lateral bud
2. Cytokinin in the leaf tip
3. Gibberellin in lateral bud
4. Auxin in shoot tip

Answer: 4. Auxin in shoot tip

Life Science MCQs For Class 10 WBBSE

Question 55. Flowering dependent on cold treatment is

1. Cryotherapy
2. Cryogenics
3. Cryoscopy
4. Vernalization

Answer: 4. Vernalization

Question 56. The translocation/movement of auxin is largely

1. Centripetal
2. Basipetal
3. Acropetal
4. Both 2 & 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 & 3

Question 57. Gibberellic acids induce flowering in

1. Short-day plants under long-day conditions
2. Long-day plants under short-day conditions
3. Day-neutral plants under dark conditions
4. Some gymnosperms only

Answer: 2. Long-day plants under short-day conditions

Question 58. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by

1. High cytokinin: auxin ratio
2. High auxin: cytokinin ratio
3. High gibberellin: auxin ratio
4. High cytokinin: gibberellin ratio

Answer: 1. High cytokinin: auxin ratio

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Quiz

Question 59. Pruning helps in making hedges dense because

1. It releases wound hormone
2. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
3. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
4. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

Answer: 3. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

Question 60. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Ga-leaf fall
2. Cytokinin-cell division
3. Laa-cell wall elongation
4. Aba-stomatal closure

Answer: 1. Ga-leaf fall

Question 61. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone?

1. IBA
2. NAA
3. Ethylene
4. ABA

Answer: 3. Ethylene

Question 62. Which of the following hormones is involved in counteracting apical dominance induced by auxin?

1. Cytokinin
2. Ethylene
3. Abscisic acid
4. Brassinosteroids

Answer: 1. Cytokinin

WBBSE Chapter 1 Response And Chemical Coordination In Animals Hormones MCQs

Question 63. Chemically hormones are

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 64. Response and coordination in animals involve the sense organs, nervous system, and chemicals called hormones.

1. Molecules
2. Substances
3. Messengers
4. Structures

Answer: 3. Messengers

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs With Answers

Question 65. Goosebumps are also called

1. Cutis anserine
2. Duckbumps
3. Coordination
4. Response

Answer: 1. Cutis anserina

Question 66. Thermo receptors are responsive to change of

1. Temperature
2. Humidity
3. Pressure
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Temperature

Question 67. An important hormone required for combatting stress is

1. Insulin
2. Thyroxin
3. Vasopressin
4. Adrenaline

Answer: 4. Adrenaline

Question 68. Hyperthyroidism results in

1. Virillism
2. Simple goitre
3. Exophthalmic goitre
4. Both (2) & (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) & (3)

Question 69. The thyroid hormones t3 and i4 are the main regulators of

1. Stress
2. Blood pressure
3. Blood sugar
4. Bmr

Answer: 4. Bmr

Question 70. Estrogen and testosterone are

1. Growth hormones
2. Sex hormones
3. Emergency hormones
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Sex hormones

Question 71. It stimulates the pituitary gland to release the sex hormones.

1. Testes
2. Ovary
3. Hypothalamus
4. Thyroid

Answer: 3. Hypothalamus

Question 72. Androgens are the hormones released by the

1. Testis
2. Pituitary
3. Adrenal
4. All of the above are correct

Answer: 1. Testis

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs With Answers

Question 73. Hormones are secreted by

1. Exocrine glands
2. Endocrine glands
3. Heterocrine glands
4. Both (2) & (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) & (3)

Question 74. An example of an amine hormone is

1. Oestrogen
2. Oxytocin
3. Epinephrine
4. Follicle-stimulating hormone

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 75. Examples of steroid hormones are

1. Thyroxine
2. Estrogens
3. Progesterone
4. Both ‘2’ and ‘3’ are correct

Answer: 4. Both ‘2’ and ‘3’ are correct

Question 76. The chemical structure of a hormone enables it to combine with a receptor in the cells of its

1. Target
2. Gland
3. Organ
4. All the above are correct

Answer: 1. Target

Question 77. Neurosecretory cells are found in

1. Liver
2. Hypothalamus
3. Kidney
4. Pancreas

Answer: 2. Hypothalamus

Question 78. Oxytocin and vasopressin are secreted by

1. Posterior pituitary
2. Anterior pituitary
3. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
4. Neither

Answer: 1. Posterior pituitary

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs With Answers

Question 79. The hormones t3 and t4 work together to regulate the body’s

1. Temperature
2. Balance
3. Metabolic rate
4. Growth

Answer: 3. Metabolic rate

Question 80. The hormone epinephrine is produced from

1. Thymus
2. Adrenal medulla
3. Adrenal cortex
4. Thyroid

Answer: 3. Adrenal cortex

Question 81. The release of puberty triggers the development of female secondary sex characteristics.

1. Progesterone
2. Adrenaline
3. Fsh
4. Oestrogen

Answer: 4. Oestrogen

Question 82. During this time, the kidneys are unable to prevent the excretion of excess water.

1. Copd
2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Cretinism

Answer: 2. Diabetes insipidus

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs

Question 83. Goitre is due to swelling of

1. Gall bladder
2. Pancreas
3. Testis
4. Thyroid

Answer: 4. Thyroid

Question 84. Is known as the master gland.

1. Pituitary
2. Thyroid
3. Ovary
4. Hypothalamus

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus

Question 85. Which one of the following is a local hormone?

1. Oxytocin
2. Insulin
3. Adrenaline
4. Gastrin

Answer: 4. Gastrin

Multiple Choice Questions On Control And Coordination

Question 86. Which hormone is not tropic?

1. ADH
2. STH
3. FSH
4. LH

Answer: 1. ADH

Question 87. Diabetes mellitus is associated with

1. Polyuria
2. Polydipsia
3. Polyphagia
4. All Of These

Answer: 4. All of the these

WBBSE Chapter 1 Response And Physical Coordination In Animals Nervous System MCQs

Question 88. In A Neuron, the Conversion Of Electrical Signal To Chemical Signal Occurs At/In

1. Axonal End
2. Dendritic End
3. Cell Body
4. Nodes Of Ranvler

Answer: 1. Axonal End

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs

Question 89. The Nervous System Is Made Up Of Two Major Types Of Cells Known As

1. Axon And Dendron
2. Neuron And Nephron
3. Neurons And Neuroglia
4. Nucleus And Cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Neurons And Neuroglia

Question 90. Axons Are

1. Afferent
2. Efferent
3. Both ‘A’ And ‘B’
4. None

Answer: 2. Efferent

Question 91. Information From One Neuron Flows To Another Neuron Across A

1. Neuro-Muscular Junction
2. Neural Joint
3. Synapse
4. Ganglia

Answer: 3. Synapse

Question 92. Brain And Spinal Cord Constitute The

1. CNS
2. PNS
3. ANS
4. BMR

Answer: 1. CNS

Question 93. The Largest Part Of The Brain Is

1. Cerebellum
2. Cerebrum
3. Cerebral Cortex
4. Medulla

Answer: 2. Cerebrum

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

Question 94. Conditioned Reflexes Are

1. Inborn
2. Abnormal
3. Simple
4. Acquired

Answer: 4. Acquired

Question 95. The Thin, Transparent Tissue That Covers The Outer Surface Of The Eye Is

1. Conjunctiva
2. Cornea
3. Retina
4. Lens

Answer: 1. Conjunctiva

Question 96. The Accommodation Is A Of The Eye.

1. Part
2. Reflex Action
3. Both ‘A’ And ‘B’
4. None

Answer: 2. Reflex Action

Question 96. Near-sightedness problem Is Also Known As

1. Hypermetropia
2. Conjunctivitis
3. Myopia
4. Presbyopia

Answer: 3. Myopia

Question 97. A Bipolar Neuron Has

1. Only One Axon
2. One Axon & Many Dendrites
3. One Axon & One Dendron
4. Neither Any Dendron Nor Any Axon

Answer: 3. One Axon & One Dendron

Question 98. Motor Neurons Transmit Impulses

1. From Receptors To Cns
2. Spinal Cord To Brain
3. From Relay Neuron To Sensory Neuron
4. Cns To Effector

Answer: 4. Cns To Effector

Question 99. An Example Of Neurotransmitter Is

1. Lysozyme
2. Dopamine
3. Nissl Granules
4. Csf

Answer: 2. Dopamine

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

Question 100. The First And Second Lateral Ventricles Of The Brain Are Connected To The Third Ventricle Through The

1. Central Canal
2. Foramen Of Monro
3. Foramen Ovale
4. Foramen Magnum

Answer: 2. Foramen Of Monro

Question 101. Which Is The Correct Sequence Of The Components Of A Reflex Arc?

1. Receptors→Muscles→ Sensory Neuron→Motor Neuron→ Spinal Cord
2. Receptors→ Motor Neuron→ Spinal Cord→ Sensory Neuron→ Muscle
3. Receptors→ Spinal Cord→ Sensory Neuron→ Motor Neuron→ Muscle
4. Receptors→ Sensory Neuron→ Spinal Cord→ Motor Neuron→ Muscle

Answer: 4. Receptors→ Sensory Neuron→ Spinal Cord→ Motor Neuron→ Muscle

Objective Type Questions MCQs

Question 102. The part of the human brain associated with controlling body temperature is?

1. Thalamus
2. Cerebellum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Medulla oblongata

Answer: Hypothalamus.

Question 103. Which one of the following is the correct reflex arc?

1. Receptor → Effector → Efferent nerve → Nerve centre→ Afferent nerve
2. Nerve centre→ Receptor→ Afferent nerve→ Effector → Efferent nerve
3. Efferent nerve Receptor→ Afferent nerve→ Nerve centre→ Effector
4. Receptor → Afferent nerve → Nerve centre→ Efferent nerve→ Effector

Answer: Receptor → Afferent nerve → Nerve centre→ Efferent nerve → Effector

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Important MCQs

Question 104. Determine the number of Cranial nerves in the human body —

1. 10 pairs
2. 31 pairs
3. 12 pairs
4. 21 pairs

Answer: 12 pairs.

WBBSE Chapter 1 Locomotion As A Type Of Response In Animals MCQs

Question 105. Amoeboid Locomotion Is Performed By

1. Cilia
2. Flagella
3. Muscles
4. Pseudopodia

Answer: 4. Pseudopodia

Question 106. Biped A I Ism Is Found In

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Euglena
4. Human

Answer: 4. Human

Question 107. Synovial Joints Are

1. Immovable
2. Movable
3. Slightly Movable
4. Both 2 And 3 Correct

Answer: 2. Movable

Question 108. Examples Of Hinge Joints Are

1. Shoulder
2. Skull
3. Knee
4. Vertebral Joints

Answer: 3. Knee

Question 109. Myotomes Are Found In

1. Fishes
2. Paramoecium
3. Euglena
4. All Animals

Answer: 1. Fishes

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 Important MCQs

Question 110. Pseudopodium In Ameoba Is Formed At The Anterior End By The

1. Conversion Of Plasmagel To Plasmasol
2. Flow Of Plasmasol At The Thinnest Point Of Cytoplasm
3. Conversion Of Plasmasol To Gel
4. None Of These

Answer: 3. Conversion Of Plasmasol To Gel

Question 111. Tail Feathers And Wing Feathers Of Birds Are Known As

1. Filoplumes And Contours
2. Rectrices And Remiges
3. Remiges And Rectrices
4. Contours And Rectrices

Answer: 2. Rectrices And Remiges

Question 112. Abductors Are Antagonists Of

1. Adductors
2. Extensors
3. Flexors
4. None Of These

Answer: 1. Adductors

Question 113. When A Joint Is Such That It Allows the Movement Of Bones In All Directions, It Is Known As A

1. Hinge Joint
2. Angular Joint
3. Pivot Joint
4. Ball And Socket Joint

Answer: 4. Ball And Socket Joint

Question 114. Elbow Joint Is

1. Pivot Joint
2. Hinge Joint
3. Gliding Joint
4. None Of These

Answer: 2. Hinge Joint

Question 115. Synovial Fluid Is Secreted By

1. Cartilage
2. Bones
3. Synovial Membrane
4. All Of These

Answer: 3. Synovial Membrane

Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1 MCQs With Answers

Question 116. Which one is the largest synovial joint of the human body?

1. Shoulder joint
2. Knee joint
3. Hip joint
4. Elbow joint

Answer: 3. Hip joint

Question 117. A sessile animal Is

1. Starfish
2. Earthworm
3. Coral
4. Snail

Answer: 3. Coral

Question 118. Flight muscles of birds are attached to

1. Keel of sternum
2. Clavicle
3. Pelvic girdle
4. Humerus

Answer: 1. Keel of sternum

Question 119. Some flowers are open after sunrise and close after sunset. This is

1. Photonasty
2. Seismonasty
3. Chemonasty
4. Thermonasty

Answer: 1. Photonasty

Question 120. The tentacles on the leaves of an insectivorous plant called sundew bend to trap the insect as soon as they come in contact with the insect’s body. This is

1. Seismonasty
2. Thermonasty
3. Photonasty
4. Chemonasty

Answer: 4. Chemonasty

Question 121. Select which of the following statements is correctly related to tropic movement-

1. It is controlled by the intensity of the stimulus
2. The overall change of place takes place by a plant or part of a plant
3. This movement is observed in the algae called volvox
4. It is an induced movement of curvature controlled by the direction of the stimulus

Answer: 1. It is an induced movement of curvature controlled by the direction of the stimulus